EMS is called to the residence of a 90 year old female who awoke to an “uncontrolled bowel movement” that corresponded with sudden onset abdominal pain.
On EMS arrival, the patient is alert and oriented to person, place, time, and event. She has a grimace on her face and appears acutely ill.
When asked the exact location of her pain she points to the epigastric area.
Past medical history: “Cardiac problems”
Medications: Numerous (but not available for the case study)
Vital signs are assessed.
Resp: 18 shallow
Pulse: Too rapid to count
BP: 118/60
SpO2: 96 on RA
The cardiac monitor is attached.
The patient is immediately loaded on the gurney and relocated to the back of the ambulance where she is placed on oxygen, an IV is established, and the combo-pads are placed.
Breath sounds are clear bilaterally.
A pacemaker can is noted in the upper-left chest.
A 12-lead ECG is captured.
At this point the patient’s skin appears grayish, pasty, and moist. Her level of consciousness is diminished and she stops responding to verbal stimuli.
What should the paramedic do next?
*** Update 06/11/2010 ***
Since everyone seems to agree synchronized cardioversion is warranted, and because I’m going out-of-town for a little while, I’ll go ahead and share this update today.
The patient immediately became more responsive and kept her eye on the treating paramedic for the remainder of the transport.
Here is the 12-lead ECG captured on arrival at the hospital.
The only other information I have about the case is that the patient was bolused with amiodarone in the emergency department and was admitted to the ICU where they had trouble maintaining her blood pressure over the next 24 hours.
I have no idea whether or not the amiodarone contributed to the blood pressure problem, but it’s worth remembering that amiodarone lowers the blood pressure, which is one of the reasons I’m hesitant to give it in the field when I have a patient who is doing well after being resuscitated from sudden cardiac arrest.
Say CLEAR!
I would recheck vital signs but it appears with the altered LOC the patient is unable. If the patient is unstable then they need to be cardioverted, possible sedated if time allows.
Great case,Looks like V tac to me, had she been stable then I would go with 150mg Amioderone diluted in 100ml D5W, however in this case Patient became unstable, I would definitely Synchronize cardiovert ASAP. .
WCT w/ RBBB morphology, with the acute mental status change I would go ahead and cardiovert @ 100J. Start another line, reassess.Academically I'm thinking VT w/ RBBB due to the QRSd of ~0.16.
I would have started the line in the house to get the 150mg of Amio running in while we move to the bus in hopes of avoiding this situation. Decreased mental status with a pt like this = unstable. Hit sync and cardiovert at 100. Sedation prior would be nice if you have access to it (my vote would b etomidate).
V-tac + Altered LOC = Cardioversion. There is no doubt about the rhythm. The QRS morphology in V1 clears any questions.
regarding post-cardioversion management, i like "don't fix it if it's not broke."but, it seems that amiodarone is finding its way into more and more return of spontaneous circulation and post-cardioversion protocols. maybe it'll be one of those things that will get deemed counterproductive in a few years.
Christopher said—-Academically I'm thinking VT w/ RBBB due to the QRSd of ~0.16.I'm a little confused as to how this can be VT with a RBBB. The electrical activity is not following the normal pathway of SA-node-> AV-node-> purkinjie fibers. In VT the charge comes up from the purkinjie fibers.
Oops I meant to say I agree with VT but not the RBBB.
Terry – This can get confusing so thanks for the reminder that we need to be careful in the way we use terminology to describe ECGs.Often VT is grouped into "RBBB-type" and "LBBB-type" for the sake of morphological analysis which can be used to help with the differential diagnosis of wide complex tachycardias.So VT with an upright QRS complex in lead V1 is "RBBB-type" but not VT with RBBB. As you indicate, a ventricular rhythm cannot be a conventional bundle branch block.Tom
Terry,My apologies for the confusion, as Tom said I was only referring to how the VT "looked" rather than there actually existing a BBB. Thanks!
Tom,With V tach, shouldn't you typically have negatively deflected I, II, and III leads and have a positively deflected V1? I'm a little confused how you can have a LBBB type V tach. And also, the positive deflection in lead III had me scratching my head a little.
Mike,Hope Tom doesn't mind me jumping in here. You can have a positive deflection in Lead III and still be V-tach. Think about the axis. Lead III is +120 degrees. Extreme right axis is between +or- 180 and -90. So if the axis is say -170degrees you would get a positive deflection in Lead III. That is why it is important to take in all the criteria for VT. Tom and Christopher,I took out my Marriots, dusted it off (-: and read about where Vtach originates– as in which ventricle. Up in V-1 left ventricle and down is right ventricle. Not that it would make a difference in the field just some cool trivia stuff.Thanks guys this is helping me to study and keep my diagnostic skills up.
Tom,Are you aware of any literature discussing the use of magnesium sulfate for non-torsades VT/VF?
Don’t be Afraid of the amiodarone. Thats what dopamine is for. Great case.
Anonymous,
The 2010 ECC guidlines research text has done a study on the regular use of magnesium for polymorphic Vtach with no prolonged QT interval. The conclusion was that in all cases, magnesium did not convert the rhythm. The only cases that showed conversion with mag were patients with known Prolonged QT syndrome or patients taking meds that can cause hypomagnesemia (i.e. Haldol) Amiodarone was the drug of choice.
Nice case….
Always the best cntonet from these prodigious writers.